Thursday, September 17, 2020

Advance Networking Concepts MCQ'S

 Advance Networking Concepts MCQ'S


1. In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are ___________

a) Added

b) Removed

c) Rearranged

d) Modified

Answer: a

2. The structure or format of data is called ___________

a) Syntax

b) Semantics

c) Struct

d) Formatting

Answer: a

3. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________ transmission.

a) Automatic

b) Half-duplex

c) Full-duplex

d) Simplex

Answer: d

4. The first Network was called ________

a) CNNET

b) NSFNET

c) ASAPNET

d) ARPANET

5. Which of this is not a network edge device?

a) PC

b) Smartphones

c) Servers

d) Switch

Answer: d

6. A _________ set of rules that governs data communication.

a) Protocols

b) Standards

c) RFCs

d) Servers

Answer: a

7. Three or more devices share a link in ________ connection.

a) Unipoint

b) Multipoint

c) Point to point

d) Simplex

Answer: b

8. When collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its client, then it is called _________

a) computer network

b) distributed system

c) networking system

d) mail system

Answer: b

9. Two devices are in network if __________

a) a process in one device is able to exchange information with a process in another device

b) a process is running on both devices

c) PIDs of the processes running of different devices are same

d) a process is active and another is inactive

Answer: a

10. In computer network nodes are _________

a) the computer that originates the data

b) the computer that routes the data

c) the computer that terminates the data

d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d

11. Communication channel is shared by all the machines on the network in ________

a) broadcast network

b) unicast network

c) multicast network

d) anycast network

Answer: a

12. Bluetooth is an example of __________

a) personal area network

b) local area network

c) virtual private network

d) wide area network

Answer: a

13. A __________ is a device that forwards packets between networks by processing the routing information included in the packet.

a) bridge

b) firewall

c) router

d) hub

Answer: c

14. A list of protocols used by a system, one protocol per layer, is called ________

a) protocol architecture

b) protocol stack

c) protocol suite

d) protocol system

Answer: b

15. Network congestion occurs _________

a) in case of traffic overloading

b) when a system terminates

c) when connection between two nodes terminates

d) in case of transfer failure

Answer: a

16. Which of the following networks extends a private network across public networks?

a) local area network

b) virtual private network

c) enterprise private network

d) storage area network

Answer: b

 17. HFC contains _______

a) Fibre cable

b) Coaxial cable

c) A combination of Fibre cable and Coaxial cable

d) Twisted Pair Cable

Answer: c

18. Home Access is provided by __________

a) DSL

b) FTTP

c) Cable

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d

19. How many layers are present in the Internet protocol stack (TCP/IP model)?

a) 5

b) 7

c) 6

d) 10

Answer: a

20. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is __________

a) 5

b) 7

c) 6

d) 10

Answer: b

21. Which of the following layers is an addition to OSI model when compared with TCP IP model?

a) Application layer

b) Presentation layer

c) Session layer

d) Session and Presentation layer

Answer: d

22. Application layer is implemented in ____________

a) End system

b) NIC

c) Ethernet

d) Packet transport

Answer: a

23. Transport layer is implemented in ______________

a) End system

b) NIC

c) Ethernet

d) Signal transmission

Answer: a

24. The functionalities of the presentation layer include ____________

a) Data compression

b) Data encryption

c) Data description

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d

25. Delimiting and synchronization of data exchange is provided by __________

a) Application layer

b) Session layer

c) Transport layer

d) Link layer

Answer: b

26. In OSI model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is _________

a) Application layer

b) Transport layer

c) Link layer

d) Session layer

Answer: d

27. In TCP IP Model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is ____________

a) Application layer

b) Transport layer

c) Link layer

d) Session layer

Answer: a

28. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers, headers are _______

a) Added

b) Removed

c) Rearranged

d) Randomized

Answer: b

29. Which of the following statements can be associated with OSI model?

a) A structured way to discuss and easier update system components

b) One layer may duplicate lower layer functionality

c) Functionality at one layer no way requires information from another layer

d) It is an application specific network model

Answer: c

30. OSI stands for __________

a) open system interconnection

b) operating system interface

c) optical service implementation

d) open service Internet

Answer: a

31. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is __________

a) 4

b) 5

c) 6

d) 7

Answer: d

32. TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer but OSI model have this layer.

a) session layer

b) transport layer

c) application layer

d) network layer

Answer: a

33. Which layer is used to link the network support layers and user support layers?

a) session layer

b) data link layer

c) transport layer

d) network layer

Answer: c

34. Which address is used on the internet for employing the TCP/IP protocols?

a) physical address and logical address

b) port address

c) specific address

d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d

35. TCP/IP model was developed _____ the OSI model.

a) prior to

b) after

c) simultaneous to

d) with no link to

Answer: a

36. Which layer is responsible for process to process delivery in a general network model?

a) network layer

b) transport layer

c) session layer

d) data link layer

Answer: b

37. Which address is used to identify a process on a host by the transport layer?

a) physical address

b) logical address

c) port address

d) specific address

Answer: c

38. Which layer provides the services to user?

a) application layer

b) session layer

c) presentation layer

d) physical layer

Answer: a

39. Transmission data rate is decided by ____________

a) network layer

b) physical layer

c) data link layer

d) transport layer

Answer: b

40. The physical layer is concerned with ___________

a) bit-by-bit delivery

p) process to process delivery

c) application to application delivery

d) port to port delivery

Answer: a

41. Which transmission media provides the highest transmission speed in a network?

a) coaxial cable

b) twisted pair cable

c) optical fiber

d) electrical cable

Answer: c

42. Bits can be sent over guided and unguided media as analog signal by ___________

a) digital modulation

b) amplitude modulation

c) frequency modulation

d) phase modulation

Answer: a

43. Transport layer aggregates data from different applications into a single stream before passing it to ____________

a) network layer

b) data link layer

c) application layer

d) physical layer

Answer: a

44. Which of the following are transport layer protocols used in networking?

a) TCP and FTP

b) UDP and HTTP

c) TCP and UDP

d) HTTP and FTP

Answer: c

45.User datagram protocol is called connectionless because _____________

a) all UDP packets are treated independently by transport layer

b) it sends data as a stream of related packets

c) it is received in the same order as sent order

d) it sends data very quickly

Answer: a

46. Transmission control protocol ___________

a) is a connection-oriented protocol

b) uses a three way handshake to establish a connection

c) receives data from application as a single stream

d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d

47.Which connection does the OSI model support in networking?

a. Connection-oriented

b. Connectionless

c. Both a and b

d. None of the above

ANSWER: Both a and b

48. Data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world is ________

a) LAN

b) WAN

c) MAN

d) PAN

Answer: b

49. Data communication system within a building or campus is________

a) LAN

b) WAN

c) MAN

d) PAN

Answer: a

50. WAN stands for __________

a) World area network

b) Wide area network

c) Web area network

d) Web access network

Answer: b

51. DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol) provides __________ to the client.

a) IP address

b) MAC address

c) Url

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a

52. DHCP is used for ________

a) IPv6

b) IPv4

c) Both IPv6 and IPv4

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c

53. The DHCP server _________

a) maintains a database of available IP addresses

b) maintains the information about client configuration parameters

c) grants a IP address when receives a request from a client

d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d

54. IP assigned for a client by DHCP server is

a) for a limited period

b) for an unlimited period

c) not time dependent

d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a

55. DHCP uses UDP port _________ for sending data to the server.

a) 66

b) 67

c) 68

d) 69

Answer: b

56. The DHCP server can provide the _______ of the IP addresses.

a) dynamic allocation

b) automatic allocation

c) static allocation

d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d

57. DHCP client and servers on the same subnet communicate via _________

a) UDP broadcast

b) UDP unicast

c) TCP broadcast

d) TCP unicast

Answer: a

58. After obtaining the IP address, to prevent the IP conflict the client may use _________

a) internet relay chat

b) broader gateway protocol

c) address resolution protocol

d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c

59. What is DHCP snooping?

a) techniques applied to ensure the security of an existing DHCP infrastructure

b) encryption of the DHCP server requests

c) algorithm for DHCP

d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a

60. If DHCP snooping is configured on a LAN switch, then clients having specific ______ can access the network.

a) MAC address

b) IP address

c) Both MAC address and IP address

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c

61. What is the format of IP address?

a) 34 bit

b) 64 bit

c) 16 bit

d) 32 bit

Answer: d

62. Version 6 of IP address has how many bits.

a) 64 bits

b) 128 bits

c) 32 bits

d) 256 bits

Answer: b

63. What is the function of Network Interface Cards?

a) connects the clients, servers and peripherals to the network through a port

b) allows you to segment a large network into smaller, efficient networks

c) connects networks with different protocols like TCP/IP

d) boost the signal between two cable segments or wireless access points

Answer: a

64. A device which is used to boost the signal between two cable segments or wireless access points is

a) Booster

b) Repeater

c) Switch

d) Router

Answer: c

65. A device that provides a central connection point for cables is –

a) Switch

b) Hub

c) Gateway

d) Proxy Server

Answer: c

66. A device that connects networks with different protocols –

a) Switch

b) Hub

c) Gateway

d) Proxy Server

Answer: c

67. A device that helps prevent congestion and data collisions –

a) Switch

b) Hub

c) Gateway

d) Proxy Server

Answer: a

68. A device that is used to connect a number of LANs is –

a) Router

b) Repeater

c) Bridge

d) Switch

Answer: a

69.Which of the following cabling techniques is considered best between buildings for establishing LANs ?

A 10Base5

B 10Base-F

C 10Base2

D None of these

Answer: b

70. __________ uses four twisted pairs.

A)   1000 Base-LX

B)   1000 Base-T

C)   1000 Base -SX

D)   none of the above

Answer:B

 71.__________ uses thin coaxial cable.

A)   10Base2

B)   10Base5

C)   10Base-F

D)   10Base-T

Answer: A

 72. ________ uses fiber-optic cable.

A)   10Base2

B)   10Base-F

C)   10Base-T

D)   10Base5

Answer: B

 73. _________ uses four twisted-pair cables that connect each station to a common hub.

A)   10Base-F

B)   10Base-T

C)   10Base5

D)   10Base2

Answer: B

 74. A ___________ is an extension of an enterprise’s private intranet across a public network such as the internet, creating a secure private connection.

a) VNP

b) VPN

c) VSN

d) VSPN

Answer: b

75. When were VPNs introduced into the commercial world?

a) Early 80’s

b) Late 80’s

c) Early 90’s

d) Late 90’s

Answer: d

76. What protocol is NOT used in the operation of a VPN?

a) PPTP

b) IPsec

c) YMUM

d) L2TP

Answer: c

77. Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning VPNs?

a) Financially rewarding compared to leased lines

b) Allows remote workers to access corporate data

c) Allows LAN-to-LAN connectivity over public networks

d) Is the backbone of the Internet

Answer: d

78. Traffic in a VPN is NOT ____________

a) Invisible from public networks

b) Logically separated from other traffic

c) Accessible from unauthorized public networks

d) Restricted to a single protocol in IPsec

Answer: c

79. VPNs are financially speaking __________

a) Always more expensive than leased lines

b) Always cheaper than leased lines

c) Usually cheaper than leased lines

d) Usually more expensive than leased lines

Answer: c

80. Which layer 3 protocols can be transmitted over an L2TP VPN?

a) Only IP

b) Only IPX

c) Only ICMP

d) IP and IPX

Answer: d

81. What is the benefit of the Networking? 

A. File Sharing 

B. Easier access to Resources 

C. Easier Backups

 D. All of the Above

Answer D

82. Which of the following is false with respect to TCP?

a) Connection-oriented

b) Process-to-process

c) Transport layer protocol

d) Unreliable

Answer: d

83. In TCP, sending and receiving data is done as _______

a) Stream of bytes

b) Sequence of characters

c) Lines of data

d) Packets

Answer: a

84. TCP process may not write and read data at the same speed. So we need __________ for storage.

a) Packets

b) Buffers

c) Segments

d) Stacks

Answer: b

85. TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called _______

a) Packet

b) Buffer

c) Segment

d) Stack

Answer: c

86. Communication offered by TCP is ________

a) Full-duplex

b) Half-duplex

c) Semi-duplex

d) Byte by byte

Answer: a

87. To achieve reliable transport in TCP, ___________ is used to check the safe and sound arrival of data.

a) Packet

b) Buffer

c) Segment

d) Acknowledgment

Answer: d

88. In segment header, sequence number and acknowledgement number fields refer to _______

a) Byte number

b) Buffer number

c) Segment number

d) Acknowledgment

Answer: a

89. Suppose a TCP connection is transferring a file of 1000 bytes. The first byte is numbered 10001. What is the sequence number of the segment if all data is sent in only one segment?

a) 10000

b) 10001

c) 12001

d) 11001

Answer: b

90. Bytes of data being transferred in each connection are numbered by TCP. These numbers start with a _________

a) Fixed number

b) Random sequence of 0’s and 1’s

c) One

d) Sequence of zero’s and one’s

Answer: d

91. The value of acknowledgement field in a segment defines _______

a) sequence number of the byte received previously

b) total number of bytes to receive

c) sequence number of the next byte to be received

d) sequence of zeros and ones

Answer: c

92.The sizes of source and destination port address in TCP header are ___________ respectively.

a) 16-bits and 32-bits

b) 16-bits and 16-bits

c) 32-bits and 16-bits

d) 32-bits and 32-bits

Answer: b

93. What allows TCP to detect lost segments and in turn recover from that loss?

a) Sequence number

b) Acknowledgment number

c) Checksum

d) Both Sequence & Acknowledgment number

Answer: b

94. The receiver of the data controls the amount of data that are to be sent by the sender is referred to as ___________

a) Flow control

b) Error control

c) Congestion control

d) Error detection

Answer: a

95. Size of TCP segment header ranges between ___________

a) 16 and 32 bytes

b) 16 and 32 bits

c) 20 and 60 bytes

d) 20 and 60 bits

Answer: c

96. Connection establishment in TCP is done by which mechanism?

a) Flow control

b) Three-Way Handshaking

c) Forwarding

d) Synchronization

Answer: b

97.“Total length” field in UDP packet header is the length of _________

a) Only UDP header

b) Only data

c) Only checksum

d) UDP header plus data

Answer: d

98. Which is the correct expression for the length of UDP datagram?

a) UDP length = IP length – IP header’s length

b) UDP length = UDP length – UDP header’s length

c) UDP length = IP length + IP header’s length

d) UDP length = UDP length + UDP header’s length

Answer: a

99. The ______ field is used to detect errors over the entire user datagram.

a) udp header

b) checksum

c) source port

d) destination port

Answer: b

100. Which of the following is false with respect to UDP?

a) Connection-oriented

b) Unreliable

c) Transport layer protocol

d) Low overhead

Answer: a

101. Beyond IP, UDP provides additional services such as _______

a) Routing and switching

b) Sending and receiving of packets

c) Multiplexing and demultiplexing

d) Demultiplexing and error checking

Answer: d

102. What is the main advantage of UDP?

a) More overload

b) Reliable

c) Low overhead

d) Fast

Answer: c

103. Port number used by Network Time Protocol (NTP) with UDP is ________

a) 161

b) 123

c) 162

d) 124

Answer: b

104. What is the header size of a UDP packet?

a) 8 bytes

b) 8 bits

c) 16 bytes

d) 124 bytes

Answer: a

105. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) has been designed to compensate _________

a) Error-reporting

b) Error-correction

c) Host and management queries

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d

106. Header size of the ICMP message is _________

a) 8-bytes

b) 8-bits

c) 16-bytes

d) 16-bits

Answer: a

107. During error reporting, ICMP always reports error messages to ________

a) Destination

b) Source

c) Next router

d) Previous router

Answer: b

108. Which of these is not a type of error-reporting message?

a) Destination unreachable

b) Source quench

c) Router error

d) Time exceeded

Answer: c

109. ICMP error message will not be generated for a datagram having a special address such as _______

a) 127.0.0.0

b) 12.1.2

c) 11.1

d) 127

Answer: a

110. When a router cannot route a datagram or host cannot deliver a datagram, the datagram is discarded and the router or the host sends a ____________ message back to the source host that initiated the datagram.

a) Destination unreachable

b) Source quench

c) Router error

d) Time exceeded

Answer: a

111. The source-quench message in ICMP was designed to add a kind of ____________ to the IP.

a) error control

b) flow control

c) router control

d) switch control

Answer: b

112. In case of time exceeded error, when the datagram visits a router, the value of time to live field is _________

a) Remains constant

b) Decremented by 2

c) Incremented by 1

d) Decremented by 1

Answer: d

113. Two machines can use the timestamp request and timestamp replay messages to determine the ___________ needed for an IP datagram to travel between them.

a) Half-trip time

b) Round-trip time

c) Travel time for the next router

d) Time to reach the destination/source

Answer: b

114. During debugging, we can use the ____________ program to find if a host is alive and responding.

a) traceroute

b) shell

c) ping

d) java

Answer: c

115. In windows ____________ can be used to trace the route of the packet from the source to the destination.

a) traceroute

b) tracert

c) ping

d) locater

Answer: b

116. In a simple echo-request message, the value of the sum is 01010000 01011100. Then, value of checksum is ___________

a) 10101111 10100011

b) 01010000 01011100

c) 10101111 01011100

d) 01010000 10100011

Answer: a

 117.Which of the following is not applicable for IP?

a) Error reporting

b) Handle addressing conventions

c) Datagram format

d) Packet handling

Answer: a

118. Which of the following field in IPv4 datagram is not related to fragmentation?

a) Flags

b) Offset

c) TOS

d) Identifier

Answer: c

119. The TTL field has value 10. How many routers (max) can process this datagram?

a) 11

b) 5

c) 10

d) 1

Answer: c

120. If the value in protocol field is 17, the transport layer protocol used is _________

a) TCP

b) UDP

c) ICMP

d) IGMP

Answer: b

121. Which field helps to check rearrangement of the fragments?

a) offset

b) flag

c) ttl

d) identifier

Answer: a

122. The size of an IP address in IPv6 is _________

a) 4bytes

b) 128bits

c) 8bytes

d) 100bits

Answer: b

123. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is ___________

a) 10bytes

b) 25bytes

c) 30bytes

d) 40bytes

Answer: d

124. In an IPv6 header, the traffic class field is similar to which field in the IPv4 header?

a) Fragmentation field

b) Fast switching

c) TOS field

d) Option field

Answer: c

125. IPv6 does not use ________ type of address.

a) Broadcast

b) Multicast

c) Any cast

d) Unicast

Answer: a

126. Which are the features present in IPv4 but not in IPv6?

a) Fragmentation

b) Header checksum

c) Options

d) Anycast address

Answer: d

127.Which of this is not a class of IP address?

a) Class E

b) Class C

c) Class D

d) Class F

Answer: d

128.Network addresses are a very important concept of ________

a) Routing

b) Mask

c) IP Addressing

d) Classless Addressing

Answer: c

129.The size of an IP address in IPv6 is _________

a) 4 bytes

b) 128 bits

c) 8 bytes

d) 100 bits

Answer: b

130.The header length of an IPv6 datagram is ___________

a) 10bytes

b) 25bytes

c) 30bytes

d) 40bytes

Answer: d

 131.IPv6 does not use _________ type of address.

a) broadcast

b) multicast

c) anycast

d) unicast

Answer: a

132.Which among the following features is present in IPv6 but not in IPv4?

a) Fragmentation

b) Header checksum

c) Options

d) Anycast address

Answer: d

 133.In process-to-process delivery, two processes communicate in which of the following methods?

a) Client/Server

b) Source/Destination

c) Message Transfer

d) Peer to Peer

Answer: a

 134.The combination of an IP address and port number is called as ________

a) Socket address

b) Port address

c) MAC address

d) Host address

Answer: a

135. Which protocol should you select if the network diameter is more than 17 hops?

a) RIPv1

b) RIPv2

c) EIGRP

d) Both RIPv1 and RIPv2

Answer: a

136. How often does a RIPv1 router broadcast its routing table by default?

a) Every 30 seconds

b) Every 60 seconds

c) Every 90 seconds

d) RIPv1 does not broadcast periodically

Answer: a

137. Which command displays RIP routing updates?

a) Show IP route

b) Debug IP rip

c) Show protocols

d) Debug IP route

Answer: b

138. You type debug IP rip on your router console and see that 172.16.10.0 is being advertised to you with a metric of 16. What does this mean?

a) The route is 16 hops away Debug IP rip

b) The route has a delay of 16 microseconds Debug IP route

c) The route is inaccessible

d) The route is queued at 16 messages a second

Answer: c

139. Default administrative distance of a static route is ________

a) 0

b) 90

c) 100

d) 1

Answer: d

140. Which protocol gives a full route table update every 30 seconds?

a) IEGRP

b) RIP

c) ICMP

d) IP

Answer: b

141. _________ is the default administrative distance of RIP.

a) 0

b) 90

c) 120

d) 130

Answer: c

142. Where should we use default routing?

a) On stub networks- which have only one exit path out of the network

b) Which have more than one exit path out of the network

c) Minimum five exit paths out of the network

d) Maximum five exit paths out of the network

Answer: a

143. Which statement is true regarding classless routing protocols?

a) The use of discontinuous networks is not allowed

b) The use of variable length subnet masks is permitted

c) RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol

d) RIPv2 supports classless routing

Answer: b

144. What is route poisoning?

a) It sends back the protocol received from a router as a poison pill, which stops the regular updates. The use of variable length subnet masks is permitted

b) It is information received from a router that can’t be sent back to the originating router.RIPv2 supports classless routing

c) It prevents regular update messages from reinstating a route that has just come up

d) It describes when a router sets the metric for a downed link to infinity

Answer: d

145. Which of the following is true regarding RIPv2?

a) It has a lower administrative distance than RIPv1

b) It converges faster than RIPv1

c) It has the same timers as RIPv1

d) It is harder to configure than RIPv1

Answer: c

146. Which two routing protocols can be redistributed into OSPF by a Cisco router?

a) IP EIGRP and AppleTalk EIGRP

b) AppleTalk EIGRP and RIPv2

c) RIPv2 and IP EIGRP

d) IPX RIP & AppleTalk EIGRP

Answer: c

147. Which protocol maintains neighbor adjacencies?

a) RIPv2 and EIGRP

b) IGRP and EIGRP

c) RIPv2

d) EIGRP

Answer: c

148. Which protocol should you select if the network diameter is more than 17 hops?

a) RIPv1

b) RIPv2

c) EIGRP

d) OSPF

Answer: b

149. In cryptography, what is cipher?

a) algorithm for performing encryption and decryption

b) encrypted message

c) both algorithm for performing encryption and decryption and encrypted message

d) decrypted message

Answer: a

150. In asymmetric key cryptography, the private key is kept by __________

a) sender

b) receiver

c) sender and receiver

d) all the connected devices to the network

Answer: b

151. Which one of the following algorithm is not used in asymmetric-key cryptography?

a) rsa algorithm

b) diffie-hellman algorithm

c) electronic code book algorithm

d) dsa algorithm

Answer: c

152. In cryptography, the order of the letters in a message is rearranged by __________

a) transpositional ciphers

b) substitution ciphers

c) both transpositional ciphers and substitution ciphers

d) quadratic ciphers

Answer: a

153. What is data encryption standard (DES)?

a) block cipher

b) stream cipher

c) bit cipher

d) byte cipher

Answer: a

154. Cryptanalysis is used __________

a) to find some insecurity in a cryptographic scheme

b) to increase the speed

c) to encrypt the data

d) to make new ciphers

Answer: a

155. Which one of the following is a cryptographic protocol used to secure HTTP connection?

a) stream control transmission protocol (SCTP)

b) transport layer security (TLS)

c) explicit congestion notification (ECN)

d) resource reservation protocol

Answer: b

156. Voice privacy in GSM cellular telephone protocol is provided by _______

a) A5/2 cipher

b) b5/4 cipher

c) b5/6 cipher

d) b5/8 cipher

Answer: a

157. ElGamal encryption system is __________

a) symmetric key encryption algorithm

b) asymmetric key encryption algorithm

c) not an encryption algorithm

d) block cipher method

Answer: b

158. Cryptographic hash function takes an arbitrary block of data and returns _________

a) fixed size bit string

b) variable size bit string

c) both fixed size bit string and variable size bit string

d) variable sized byte string

Answer: a

 159.The client in socket programming must know which information?

a) IP address of Server

b) Port number

c) Both IP address of Server & Port number

d) Only its own IP address

Answer: c

160.Which classes are used for connection-less socket programming?

a) Datagram Socket

b) Datagram Packet

c) Both Datagram Socket & Datagram Packet

d) Server Socket

Answer: c

161.The term that is used to place packet in its route to its destination is called __________

a) Delayed

b) Urgent

c) Forwarding

d) Delivering

Answer: c

162.Next-Hop Method is used to reduce contents of a _________

a) Revolving table

b) Rotating Table

c) Routing Table

d) Re-allocate table

Answer: c

163.RPF stands for __________

a) Reverse Path Forwarding

b) Reverse Path Failure

c) Reverse Packet Forwarding

d) Reverse Protocol Failure

Answer: a

164. LSP stands for __________

a) Link Stable Packet

b) Link State Packet

c) Link State Protocol

d) Link State Path

Answer: b

165. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is also called as _____________

a) Link state protocol

b) Error-correction protocol

c) Routing information protocol

d) Border gateway protocol

Answer: a

166. The computation of the shortest path in OSPF is usually done by ____________

a) Bellman-ford algorithm

b) Routing information protocol

c) Dijkstra’s algorithm

d) Distance vector routing

Answer: c

167. Which of the following is false with respect to the features of OSPF?

a) Support for fixed-length subnetting by including the subnet mask in the routing message

b) More flexible link cost than can range from 1 to 65535

c) Use of designated router

d) Distribution of traffic over multiple paths that have equal cost to the destination

Answer: a

168. In OSPF, which protocol is used to discover neighbour routers automatically?

a) Link state protocol

b) Error-correction protocol

c) Routing information protocol

d) Hello protocol

Answer: d

169. Which of the following is not a type of OSPF packet?

a) Hello

b) Link-state request

c) Link-state response

d) Link-state ACK

Answer: c

170. What is the correct order of the operations of OSPF?

i – Hello packets

ii – Propagation of link-state information and building of routing tables

iii – Establishing adjacencies and synchronization of database

a) i-ii-iii

b) i-iii-ii

c) iii-ii-i

d) ii-i-iii

Answer: b

171. In OSPF header, which field is used to detect errors in the packet?

a) Type

b) Area ID

c) Authentication type

d) Checksum

Answer: d

172. In OSPF database descriptor packet, if there are more database descriptor packets in the flow, ‘M’ field is set to ____________

a) 1

b) 0

c) more

d) -1

Answer: a

173. In OSPF database descriptor packet, which field is used to indicate that the router is master?

a) M

b) MS

c) I

d) Options

Answer: b

174. In OSPF database descriptor packet, which field is used to detect a missing packet?

a) LSA header

b) MS

c) Database descriptor sequence number

d) Options

Answer: c

175. An OSPF router receives an LSA, the router checks its sequence number, and this number matches the sequence number of the LSA that the receiving router already has. What does the receiving router do with the LSA?

a) Ignores the LSA

b) Adds it to the database

c) Sends newer LSU update to source router

d) Floods the LSA to the other routers

Answer: a

176. An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router checks its sequence number and finds that this number is higher than the sequence number it already has. Which two tasks does the router perform with the LSA?

a) Ignores the LSA

b) Adds it to the database

c) Sends newer LSU update to source router

d) Floods the LSA to the other routers

Answer: b

177. An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router checks its sequence number and finds that this number is lower than the sequence number it already has. What does the router do with the LSA?

a) ignores the LSA

b) adds it to the database

c) sends newer LSU update to source router

d) floods the LSA to the other routers

Answer: c

178. Each LSA has its own age timer. By default, how long does an LSA wait before requiring an update?

a) 30 seconds

b) 1 minute

c) 30 minutes

d) 1 hour

Answer: c

179. Distance vector protocols use the concept of split horizon, but link-state routing protocols, such as OSPF, do not.

a) True

b) False

Answer: b

180. The outcome of Dijkstra’s calculation is used to populate the __________

a) Topology table

b) Routing table

c) Neighbor table

d) Adjacency table

Answer: b

181. What is the IP protocol number for OSPF packets?

a) 89

b) 86

c) 20

d) 76

Answer: a

182. Which packet is NOT an OSPF packet type?

a) LSU

b) LSR

c) DBD

d) Query

Answer: d

183. Which multicast address does the OSPF Hello protocol use?

a) 224.0.0.5

b) 224.0.0.6

c) 224.0.0.7

d) 224.0.0.8

Answer: a

184. The Hello protocol sends periodic updates to ensure that a neighbor relationship is maintained between adjacent routers.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

185. DBD packets are involved during which two states?

a) Exstart and exchange

b) Loading and Two-way

c) Init and Full

d) Down and Loading

Answer: a

186. At which interval does OSPF refresh LSAs?

a) 10 seconds

b) 30 seconds

c) 30 minutes

d) 1 hour

Answer: d

187. Which field is NOT a field within an OSPF packet header?

a) Packet length

b) Router ID

c) Authentication type

d) Maxage time

Answer: d

188. Which two commands are required for basic OSPF configuration?

a) “[Network mask] area [area-id]” and “Router ospf [process-id]”

b) “[Wildcard-mask] area [area-id]” and “[Network mask] area [area-id]”

c) Only “Router ospf [process-id]”

d) “[Wildcard-mask] area [area-id]” and “Router ospf [process-id]”

Answer: d

189. Which OSPF show command describes a list of OSPF adjacencies?

a) Show ip ospf interface

b) Show ip ospf

c) Show ip route

d) Show ip ospf neighbor

Answer: d

190. Network layer firewall works as a __________

a) Frame filter

b) Packet filter

c) Content filter

d) Virus filter

Answer: b

191. Network layer firewall has two sub-categories as _________

a) State full firewall and stateless firewall

b) Bit oriented firewall and byte oriented firewall

c) Frame firewall and packet firewall

d) Network layer firewall and session layer firewall

Answer: a

192. A firewall is installed at the point where the secure internal network and untrusted external network meet which is also known as __________

a) Chock point

b) Meeting point

c) Firewall point

d) Secure point

Answer: a

193. Which of the following is / are the types of firewall?

a) Packet Filtering Firewall

b) Dual Homed Gateway Firewall

c) Screen Host Firewall

d) Dual Host Firewall

Answer: a

194. A proxy firewall filters at _________

a) Physical layer

b) Data link layer

c) Network layer

d) Application layer

Answer: d

195. A packet filter firewall filters at __________

a) Physical layer

b) Data link layer

c) Network layer or Transport layer

d) Application layer

Answer: c

196. What is one advantage of setting up a DMZ with two firewalls?

a) You can control where traffic goes in three networks

b) You can do stateful packet filtering

c) You can do load balancing

d) Improved network performance

Answer: c

197. What tells a firewall how to reassemble a data stream that has been divided into packets?

a) The source routing feature

b) The number in the header’s identification field

c) The destination IP address

d) The header checksum field in the packet header

Answer: a

198. A stateful firewall maintains a ___________ which is a list of active connections.

a) Routing table

b) Bridging table

c) State table

d) Connection table

Answer: a

199. A firewall needs to be __________ so that it can grow proportionally with the network that it protects.

a) Robust

b) Expansive

c) Fast

d) Scalable

Answer: b

200. What is the access point (AP) in a wireless LAN?

a) device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network

b) wireless devices itself

c) both device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network and wireless devices itself

d) all the nodes in the network

Answer: a

201. In wireless ad-hoc network _________

a) access point is not required

b) access point is must

c) nodes are not required

d) all nodes are access points

Answer: a

202. Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN?

a) CDMA

b) CSMA/CA

c) ALOHA

d) CSMA/CD

Answer: b

203. In wireless distribution system __________

a) multiple access point are inter-connected with each other

b) there is no access point

c) only one access point exists

d) access points are not required

Answer: a

204. A wireless network interface controller can work in _______

a) infrastructure mode

b) ad-hoc mode

c) both infrastructure mode and ad-hoc mode

d) WDS mode

Answer: c

205. In wireless network an extended service set is a set of ________

a) connected basic service sets

b) all stations

c) all access points

d) connected access points

Answer: a

206. Mostly ________ is used in wireless LAN.

a) time division multiplexing

b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing

c) space division multiplexing

d) channel division multiplexing

Answer: b

207. Which one of the following event is not possible in wireless LAN?

a) collision detection

b) acknowledgement of data frames

c) multi-mode data transmission

d) connection to wired networks

Answer: a

208. What is Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)?

a) security algorithm for ethernet

b) security algorithm for wireless networks

c) security algorithm for usb communication

d) security algorithm for emails

Answer: b

209. What is WPA?

a) wi-fi protected access

b) wired protected access

c) wired process access

d) wi-fi process access

Answer: a

210. What is internet?

a) a single network

b) a vast collection of different networks

c) interconnection of local area networks

d) interconnection of wide area networks

Answer: b

211. To join the internet, the computer has to be connected to a _________

a) internet architecture board

b) internet society

c) internet service provider

d) different computer

Answer: c

212. Internet access by transmitting digital data over the wires of a local telephone network is provided by _______

a) leased line

b) digital subscriber line

c) digital signal line

d) digital leased line

Answer: b

213. ISP exchanges internet traffic between their networks by __________

a) internet exchange point

b) subscriber end point

c) isp end point

d) internet end point

Answer: a

214. Which of the following protocols is used in the internet?

a) HTTP

b) DHCP

c) DNS

d) DNS, HTTP and DNS

Answer: d

215. The size of an IP address in IPv6 is _________

a) 32 bits

b) 64 bits

c) 128 bits

d) 265 bits

Answer: c

216. Internet works on _______

a) packet switching

b) circuit switching

c) both packet switching and circuit switching

d) data switching

Answer: a

217. Which protocol assigns IP address to the client connected in the internet?

a) DHCP

b) IP

c) RPC

d) RSVP

Answer: a

218. Which one of the following is not used in media access control?

a) ethernet

b) digital subscriber line

c) fiber distributed data interface

d) packet switching

Answer: d

219. What is the range of autonomous system numbers (ASNs) that can be assigned to a network using BGP?

A. 1 to 256

B. 1 to 1024

C. 1 to 64,640

D. 1 to 65,535

Correct D

220. Which of the following is true with respect to BGP routing?

A. Routing decisions are made based on number of hops.

B. Routing decisions are made based on metrics

C. Routing decisions are made based on Tics

D. Routing decisions are made based on network Policy.

Correct D

221. Which of the following is an Exterior routing protocol?

A. OSPF

B. EIGRP

C. RIP v2

D. BGP

Correct D

222. Which of the following is NOT a type of message that a BGP common Header will contain?

A. OPEN message

B. UPDATE message

C. ROUTEBUSY message

D. KEEPALIVE message

Correct C

223. Which of the following are well-known mandatory attributes used in BGP? [Choose all that apply].

A. AS_PATH

B. NEXT_HOP

C. ORIGIN

D. COMMUNITIES

Correct A, B, C

224. Which of the following statements is true with respect BGP?

A. Any two routers that have been connected and supposed to make TCP connection in order to exchange BGP routing information are called peers, or neighbors.

B. Any two physically adjacent routers are called peers, or neighbors.

C. Any two routers that have formed a TCP connection in order to exchange BGP routing information are called peers, or neighbors.

D. Any routers belonging to the same AS are called peers, or neighbors.

Correct C

225.Which command can you enter to verify that a BGP connection to a remote device is established?

  • A. show ip bgp summary*

  • B. show ip community-list

  • C. show ip bgp paths

  • D. show ip route

Correct A

226.Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration? (Choose two)

  • A. autonomous system number*

  • B. version number

  • C. router ID

  • D. subnet mask

  • E. IP address*

Correct A, E

227. Which of these do not provide free E-mail?

a) Hotmail

b) Rediff

c) WhatsApp

d) Yahoo

Answer: c

 228.Which of these is not a medium for e-mail?

a) Intranet

b) Internet

c) Extranet

d) Paper

Answer: d

229.In which one of the following country, email was invented?

  1. Norway

  2. Spain

  3. America

  4. Canada

Answer: c


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